01. An administrator runs DROP USER app_owner; against a user that owns several tables, views, and other schema objects. Oracle returns an error and the user is not dropped.
What should the administrator do to drop this user, together with everything it owns, in a single statement?
a) Re-issue the statement as DROP USER app_owner CASCADE;, which drops the user account together with every object it owns.
b) Individually drop every object that app_owner owns one at a time, then run DROP USER app_owner; without CASCADE.
c) Run ALTER USER app_owner ACCOUNT LOCK; first, then re-issue DROP USER app_owner; without CASCADE.
d) Run REVOKE ALL PRIVILEGES FROM app_owner; and then repeat the DROP USER app_owner; statement without CASCADE.
02. Users report that a particular application is running slowly. The DBA wants to identify which currently connected session is consuming the most resources and what SQL statement it is currently executing.
Which dynamic performance view should the DBA query first?
a) V$SGA, which reports memory-region sizes rather than individual session details
b) V$INSTANCE, which reports overall instance status rather than per-session SQL activity
c) V$SESSION, which lists each session's status and currently executing SQL statement
d) DBA_USERS, a dictionary view describing user accounts rather than live session activity
03. In a container database (CDB), CDB$ROOT is currently in MOUNT state and has not yet been opened. A DBA attempts to bring one of the CDB's pluggable databases (PDBs) to OPEN READ WRITE state.
What happens, and why?
a) The attempt succeeds, but in READ ONLY mode, since a PDB defaults to read-only until the root itself has been opened
b) The attempt fails, because a PDB cannot open until CDB$ROOT is open, since the root hosts the shared dictionary and background processes PDBs depend on
c) The attempt fails, because PDB$SEED itself must first be opened before any user-created PDB is allowed to open
d) The attempt succeeds, because each PDB maintains its own instance, memory area, and dictionary, separate from the root's open state
04. Which statement best describes the primary role of a database's control file?
a) It records the physical structure and state of the database, including datafile and redo log locations and checkpoint information.
b) It stores before-images of changed data within the undo tablespace to support read consistency for long-running queries and transaction rollback.
c) It stores initialization parameters, such as memory and process limits, that control overall instance behavior and startup.
d) It records change vectors used by the redo apply (rolling-forward) process to reconstruct committed transactions during instance or media recovery.
05. A DBA is reviewing the relationship between checkpoints and Mean Time To Recover (MTTR) for a database.
Which two statements are correct?
(Choose two.)
a) Checkpoints eliminate the need for online redo logs once they complete successfully.
b) MTTR depends on the configured size of the fast recovery area and is unrelated to checkpoint frequency or timing.
c) A checkpoint is triggered by a manual ALTER SYSTEM CHECKPOINT command and does not occur automatically on its own.
d) More frequent checkpoints generally reduce the amount of redo that must be applied during crash recovery, shortening recovery time.
e) A checkpoint updates the control file and datafile headers to record how far data blocks have already been written to disk.
06. The database is experiencing a high rate of hard parses, and the DBA suspects the shared pool may be undersized. Before changing the shared pool size, the DBA wants data-driven projections of how library cache and parsing performance would likely change at several candidate shared pool sizes.
Which advisor should the DBA consult?
a) SQL Tuning Advisor
b) PGA Memory Advisor
c) Buffer Cache Advisor
d) Shared Pool Advisor
07. Before a DBA runs expdp or impdp, what must already exist for the job to read and write its dump and log files?
a) Operating-system file permissions on the Oracle software owner's account, similar to the legacy exp/imp utilities, with no database-level object required.
b) An Oracle directory object, created with CREATE DIRECTORY, pointing to an OS path, with read/write privileges granted to the user who runs the job.
c) A database link mapping to the target operating-system filesystem, configured much like a link used for querying tables in a separate, remote Oracle database instance.
d) A pre-created, empty dump file with the exact file name and directory path that expdp is expected to generate for this particular export job.
08. Which three statements about lsnrctl commands are correct?
(Choose three.)
a) lsnrctl reload actually restarts the entire listener process from scratch, forcibly disconnecting all currently connected sessions.
b) lsnrctl stop shuts down the running listener process entirely, ending its ability to accept any new incoming connections.
c) lsnrctl stop merely pauses acceptance of new connections while the listener process stays resident and idle in memory.
d) lsnrctl reload re-reads listener.ora and applies the updated configuration without terminating existing client connections.
e) lsnrctl start launches the listener process, reading its configured parameters from listener.ora (or defaults).
f) lsnrctl start requires the target database instance to already be open and mounted before the listener process can start.
09. Under the local naming method, where does a client resolve a connect identifier such as orclpdb into a full connect descriptor?
a) Under the local naming method, where does a client resolve a connect identifier such as orclpdb into a full connect descriptor?
b) From the listener.ora file located in the database server's Oracle Net configuration.
c) From a centralized LDAP-based directory server contacted automatically by Easy Connect.
d) From an entry in the client's local tnsnames.ora file.
10. What is the purpose of the DBMS_STATS package?
a) It captures periodic instance-wide performance snapshots, much like AWR, for later trend comparison and baselines.
b) It analyzes accumulated wait events to identify the top contributors to response time, similar to an ADDM finding.
c) It gathers and manages optimizer statistics on tables, indexes, and columns so the optimizer can choose efficient execution plans.
d) It reclaims unused space below a segment's high-water mark by compacting and relocating rows toward the front.